cross-posted from: https://lemmygrad.ml/post/12934485
The comments are even more reprehensible! This is the flood gate the Mamdani supporters opened after calling all of Mamdani’s anti-zionist critics antisemitic.
Source: https://bsky.app/profile/doopcommander.bsky.social/post/3mwu5rx726s2z
I thought they had succeeded in forcefully assimilating Palestinian Jews because they could avoid being victimized by settler colonial violence by joining it, which is why there are almost zero Jews in the modern persecuted Palestinian populations of colonial subjects. I’m not saying this is definitely true and you’re wrong, just that this is what I thought it was and I was wondering if you or someone else could either explain the relationship between these two accounts or simply tell me that mine is totally mistaken.
I do know of course that a lot of Palestinians are descended from Jews who converted to Christianity or Islam (or both successively), but I assume you don’t mean them.
Jewish population of Palestine was naturalized under Israeli citizenship law, causing the specific “Palestinian Jew” designation to largely recede into historical usage. These communities did not face the same expulsion as the Arab Palestinian population; instead, they integrated into the new state, with many taking part in the IDF.