No, he did not. I’ve read it 5-6 times over the years, not once did he call for genocide. You can show what you think is a call for genocide, and I’ll explain why that’s not the case at all.
Was the French Revolution a “genocide” against the Monarchy? Further, revolution doesn’t necessitate killing every member of the bourgeoisie. Further still, you are likening relations to Capital to immutable characteristics like ethnicity.
Marx divides all people into classes and then declares that people in a specific class are better than people in other classes. This is covered in his first part called “Bourgeois and Proletarians”. Direct quote:
the proletariat is its special and essential product
The second part establishes that there are even better representatives of “good people” called “Communists”. This whole section is dedicated to dehumanising everyone else and showing that Communists are the superior people to everyone else.
He then openly calls for violence multiple times finishing with:
their ends can be attained only by the forcible overthrow of all existing social conditions.
You can replace “Communists” with “Arians” and “Bourgeoisie” with “Jews” and you’ll get Hitler’s manifest. Same shit.
Even if this is true (it is not, 1 and 2 are just wrong), it does not show him calling for a genocide.
And your last line is incredibly stupid, “but what if he had written jews”, see just like Hitler. “But what if water was fire”, “but what if up was down”.
He didn’t. Bourgeoisie != Jew. If you replaced all instances of “Bourgeoisie” with “Jew” it would not make sense, as Marx is talking about classes, and their relation to the MOP not jews and arians or whatever.
Marx literally calls for a genocide in his manifesto. It might not be political in your view, but communism is inherently a genocide.
Others have asked for sources. I know it’s not true. If Marx called for genocide, centrists would love him.
I posted a reply.
“He didn’t like existing systems of oppression. Therefore literally hitler.” is a shit reply.
No, he did not.
Yes, yes he did.
No, he did not. I’ve read it 5-6 times over the years, not once did he call for genocide. You can show what you think is a call for genocide, and I’ll explain why that’s not the case at all.
I posted a comment below. It’s clear as day. Anyone arguing is delusional.
Was the French Revolution a “genocide” against the Monarchy? Further, revolution doesn’t necessitate killing every member of the bourgeoisie. Further still, you are likening relations to Capital to immutable characteristics like ethnicity.
You’re deeply unserious.
Please quote that part.
You can read the full manifesto here https://www.marxists.org/archive/marx/works/download/pdf/Manifesto.pdf But let’s go through it step by step.
The second part establishes that there are even better representatives of “good people” called “Communists”. This whole section is dedicated to dehumanising everyone else and showing that Communists are the superior people to everyone else.
He then openly calls for violence multiple times finishing with:
You can replace “Communists” with “Arians” and “Bourgeoisie” with “Jews” and you’ll get Hitler’s manifest. Same shit.
Even if this is true (it is not, 1 and 2 are just wrong), it does not show him calling for a genocide.
And your last line is incredibly stupid, “but what if he had written jews”, see just like Hitler. “But what if water was fire”, “but what if up was down”.
He didn’t. Bourgeoisie != Jew. If you replaced all instances of “Bourgeoisie” with “Jew” it would not make sense, as Marx is talking about classes, and their relation to the MOP not jews and arians or whatever.