That’s just not true. In the US for example we know wealth was less concentrated in the late 1700’s, early 1800’s, and then again with the New Deal after the Great Depression. In fact the wealth gap in the US alone is higher now than it’s ever been, including during the Gilded Era.
That’s just not true. In the US for example we know wealth was less concentrated in the late 1700’s, early 1800’s, and then again with the New Deal after the Great Depression. In fact the wealth gap in the US alone is higher now than it’s ever been, including during the Gilded Era.