• xthexder@l.sw0.com
    link
    fedilink
    English
    arrow-up
    19
    ·
    edit-2
    4 months ago

    Ah, you’re right. I was thrown off by WolframAlpha saying the integral = π ≈ 3.1416 Both of those should be ≈

    (x^2 + y^2)=1 is the equation for a unit circle, so it’s definitely related. Just not quite how I thought.

    • OrganicMustard@lemmy.world
      link
      fedilink
      English
      arrow-up
      7
      ·
      4 months ago

      Also the 2D gaussian integral is used to give an insight on why the 1D gaussian integral is sqrt of pi. Here is a video with cool visualization for anyone interested.